Comprehensive Respiratory and Burn Care Practice Test

These questions are part of the practice quiz. Start practicing

• Which complication should be prioritized for patients who refuse to get out of bed post-op?
• Which complementary therapy can be used during dressing changes?
• In electrical burn management, which of the following interventions is recommended?
• Which complication is most associated with a 90-year-old patient after surgery?
• In ARDS, prone positioning is most beneficial for which scenario?
• After a spinal anesthesia procedure, what is the primary reason to stay flat?
• Which ABG pattern differentiates hypoxemic respiratory failure from hypercapnic respiratory failure?
• What is an effective analgesia and sedation strategy for ventilated burn patients?
• How is bronchodilator responsiveness assessed at the bedside?
• During the emergent stage of burn care, which actions are priorities?
• What is the first signal of malignant hyperthermia?
• After an electrical burn, which assessments should be monitored?
• What is the main concern with smoke inhalation?
• What does TBSA stand for in the Parkland formula context?
• Which intervention minimizes the risk of scar formation?
• The combination of sudden shortness of breath and pleuritic chest pain after surgery most likely indicates?
• Hyperbaric oxygen therapy is indicated for carbon monoxide poisoning in which scenario?
• In a smoke inhalation case, which statement is not listed as an immediate management step?
• If a patient who fell shows hypoxemia and hypercarbia, what is prepared?
• When a ventilated patient experiences a high pressure alarm due to tube obstruction or biting the tube, what is an appropriate immediate nursing action?
• Which interventions are appropriate for a patient with decreasing respirations in the burn care context?
• Which of the following correctly describes the Parkland formula variables?
• What should a patient know about dressing changes after returning home from a burn?
• FiO2 stands for the fraction of inspired oxygen. What is the typical FiO2 of room air?
• What is the urine output target for adequate resuscitation in adults with burns?
• What are the signs and symptoms of pneumothorax?
• What should be done for a COPD patient with pneumonia and hypoxemia?
• Which sign is characteristic of a flail chest?
• Why should a spinal anesthesia patient remain flat post-op?
• Which noninvasive ventilation strategy is described for hypercapnia?
• What will nutrition labs look like post-burn?
• In inhalation injury, bronchoscopy is used primarily to:
• If a patient with suspected pneumothorax is hemodynamically stable, which imaging modality is typically used first?
• What is the Parkland formula for fluid resuscitation in burn patients?
• What is plateau pressure and why should it be kept low?
• During dressing changes, which non-pharmacologic intervention can reduce anxiety?
• During fluid resuscitation for burn injuries, what is the expected urine output for an average adult?
• To prevent contractures in burn patients, what approach is used?
• How do CPAP and BiPAP differ?
• Which finding indicates patient awareness during a procedure?
• How does SIMV differ from assist-control ventilation?
• During emergent phase, what MAP target is indicated?
• What is the first-line imaging modality to rapidly assess suspected pneumothorax in a hemodynamically unstable patient?
• In ARDS protective ventilation, the tidal volume per kilogram of ideal body weight is typically kept to which range?
• What are the interventions for a patient with cyanosis and acute respiratory failure?
• In burn patients, what is the primary immediate concern for those with extensive burns?
• Which statement best describes a component of legally valid informed consent?
• In an effectively ventilated patient, how does EtCO2 relate to PaCO2?
• Which practice best minimizes ventilator-induced lung injury (VILI)?
• Legally valid informed consent is best described by which option?
• In electrical burn injuries, which organ system requires careful monitoring due to the risk of injury?
• Which statement best reflects initial priorities during the emergent phase of burn care?
• Paradoxical chest movement is most closely associated with which thoracic injury?
• In ARDS management, which ventilation approach is associated with reduced ventilator-induced lung injury?
• A preoperative patient who recently received benzodiazepines, what should be prepared?
• In burn patient management, which of the following is a primary goal during resuscitation?
• What is an escharotomy?
• Which auscultation finding is most consistent with pneumonia?
• What causes low pressure and high pressure alarms in mechanical ventilation?
• Which intervention is most effective in burn care to minimize scar tissue development?
• What action should be taken first for a patient with COPD experiencing increased shortness of breath?
• What measure is key to maintaining normothermia during burn resuscitation?
• Which part of the respiratory tract is primarily responsible for gas exchange?
• In Berlin ARDS criteria, which feature relates to the timing of onset?
• Which signs most clearly indicate airway compromise in burn/inhalation patients?
• What is one of the key goals of daily spontaneous awakening trials in ventilated burn patients?
• What is the target PTT range for a patient receiving heparin after a pulmonary embolism?
• What is the primary purpose of bronchoscopy in inhalation injury?
• Which of the following is a sign of pneumothorax as described in clinical signs?
• What best describes dead space ventilation and its clinical implication in ventilated patients?
• What is the priority in patient care?
• What does PEEP (Positive End Expiratory Pressure) do?
• What are the interventions for a patient with shortness of breath, tachypnea, and cyanosis?
• What are the signs and symptoms of pneumonia?
• What is the intervention for pneumothorax and tension pneumothorax?
• When should early enteral nutrition ideally be initiated in burn patients to support healing and reduce complications?
• Ventilator-associated pneumonia is diagnosed after 48 hours of ventilation by which criteria?
• Which imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting early inhalation injury-related edema?
• Which combination of nutritional laboratory abnormalities is most commonly seen after a major burn?
• Why are systemic corticosteroids given early in acute asthma management?
• Which structure is part of the lower respiratory tract?
• According to Berlin criteria, which PaO2/FiO2 ratio defines severe ARDS when PEEP is at least 5 cm H2O?
• A PaO2/FiO2 ratio of 150 with PEEP ≥5 cm H2O falls into which ARDS category?
• Why are burn patients highly susceptible to infection and sepsis?
• Which electrolyte disturbance is commonly seen early in burn resuscitation?
• Which is a classic indication for chest tube thoracostomy?
• How do obstructive and restrictive patterns differ on spirometry?
• Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for ARDS?
• What is a primary purpose of prone positioning in ARDS management?
• Which statement about PEEP is correct?
• What is the intervention for an ARDS patient with diminished breath sounds?
• What is the main physiological purpose of PEEP in mechanical ventilation?
• Which condition is a classic indication for chest tube thoracostomy?
• What is flail chest and how will it present?
• For a COPD patient with worsening dyspnea, the recommended initial positioning and oxygen approach is:
• Which of the following reflects common extubation readiness criteria?
• Which practice best supports maintaining normothermia in burn resuscitation?
• What should you evaluate for in a patient with high temperature, high heart rate, and tachypnea in the acute burn phase?
• Hyperkalemia is common early in burn resuscitation due to cell lysis; which electrolyte disturbance occurs later due to diuresis?
• Why is an escharotomy performed for circumferential full-thickness chest burns?
• A large EtCO2–PaCO2 gap may indicate which conditions?
• Which statement describes a second-degree burn?
• In a patient with extensive burns to the left leg, which finding indicates the need for immediate intervention?
• Which assessment best estimates burn surface area in adults?
• For boiling water burns on a child's chest, what is the recommended first aid?
• In burn care, what is a primary priority during the emergent stage?
• What is the Rule of Nines used for?
• Which statement correctly describes a 3rd-degree burn?
• What is auto-PEEP and in which patient population is it most common?
• What intervention can lower the risk of contractures?
• Under the Berlin criteria, what is the PaO2/FiO2 range for mild ARDS?
• Which statement best reflects infection control in burn patients?
• In a burn patient with tachycardia and fever, what is the best initial assessment step?
• Name two noninvasive ventilation modes and a typical indication.
• What cues are typical of right lower lobe pneumonia?
• What is the hemodynamic effect of prone positioning in ARDS?
• What is the intervention for a patient with hypercapnia?
• What interventions are necessary for electrical burns?
• Which initial burn assessment is NOT typically part of the emergent phase?
• Which antidote is used for cyanide poisoning in inhalation injuries?
• What is the role of chest physiotherapy in patients with thick secretions?
• Which of the following is a typical criterion indicating readiness for a spontaneous breathing trial?
• What should you do if a patient's O2 level is 55 and their condition is worsening?
• Which statement about the Rule of Nines is true?
• For a patient who is blue and dusky and not breathing, what is the priority intervention?
• How is Parkland formula fluid distribution typically administered over time?
• What is the initial and definitive treatment for carbon monoxide poisoning?
• Which parameter should be monitored to assess progression in blunt chest trauma with respiratory failure?
• What should you consider with circumferential burns?
• Which of the following is a risk factor for ARDS?
• What is a common complication of rib fracture due to shallow breathing?
• Postoperative sudden onset of shortness of breath and sharp pleuritic chest pain suggests which condition?
• During oxygen therapy for an acute COPD exacerbation, what SpO2 target is recommended?
• What is the pain management for burns?
• What is a primary benefit of early enteral nutrition in burn patients, beyond timing?
• Which sign indicates a possible inhalation injury?
• What intervention is anticipated for a flail chest patient with dropping O2 and rising CO2?
• Which statement best describes the function of pulmonary surfactant?
• Which lab value is monitored for heparin therapy in pulmonary embolism treatment?
• Which measure helps prevent scar formation after burns?
• What is the immediate concern for a patient with extensive 3rd-degree burns?
• During initial burn assessment in the emergent phase, which assessment is least prioritized?
• What is the priority with burns?
• Which statement describes the Rule of Nines?
• What do pressure garments help with in burn care?
• What should be the initial priorities in the management of any severe burn?
• What is the next step in assessing a client diagnosed with acute respiratory failure who shows cyanosis?
• What is the normal range for PTT without anticoagulation?
• What causes the high pressure alarm on a ventilator to activate?
• Which practice is commonly recommended to help prevent ventilator-associated pneumonia?
• Which intervention should be prioritized for a patient with breathlessness and hypercapnia?
• Which strategy is a key preventive measure for ventilator-associated pneumonia (VAP)?
• What does the PaO2/FiO2 ratio indicate?
• What is palliative care?
• What is the purpose of spontaneous breathing trials in ventilated patients?
• The priority emergent action for a patient with tension pneumothorax is?
• What should you check if a patient on a mechanical vent shows sudden restlessness?
• Which description best matches a third-degree burn?
• A nasal cannula delivers FiO2 in the 24–44% range when providing what flow range?
• In burn-inhalation injuries, which combination most contributes to ARDS development?
• Which position is used to promote lung expansion in ARDS?
• What are typical protein and caloric goals for adults with severe burns?
• In blunt trauma to the chest, which initial assessments are appropriate?
• What procedure is used to relieve pressure in circumferential burns?
• Which scenario is a typical indication for noninvasive ventilation in acute care?
• If capillary refill is delayed after pressing on a finger, what is the recommended next step?
• In burn-inhalation injury patients, what is a major contributor to ARDS development?
• Interpret the arterial blood gas: pH 7.25, PaCO2 60 mmHg, HCO3- 28 mEq/L.
• Which structure is part of the upper respiratory tract?
• Which description matches a third-degree burn?
• What should you do first when multiple alarms are going off?
• What interventions can prevent VAP?
• How should airway edema risk influence timing of airway protection in burn patients?
• For a patient on a mechanical ventilator, what is an important ongoing assessment?
• What puts a patient at risk for malignant hyperthermia?
• In ARDS terminology, how is severity classified under the Berlin criteria?
• Which device delivers CPAP or BiPAP noninvasively?
• What medication do you anticipate for a patient with a pulmonary embolism?
• What is the first intervention for a patient with ARDS and diminished breath sounds?
• What is the role of PEEP in lung-protective ventilation?
• Which statement best reflects priorities in the emergent phase of burn care?
• A sudden rise in peak inspiratory pressure on a ventilator is NOT typically associated with which of the following?
• In inhalation injury management, which imaging modality is most sensitive for detecting edema?
• In the emergent phase, which hemodynamic parameter is typically around 70?
• What should be done first for a burn victim with tachycardia, tachypnea, and fever?
• What is a recognized benefit of prone positioning in ARDS patients?
• Which option is NOT a symptom of a pulmonary embolism?
• Which is a potential contributor to postoperative hypertension?
• Which medications and support are anticipated for a patient with COPD who develops ARDS?
• Which of the following best describes how chest physiotherapy aids mucus clearance?
• In the emergent phase, which statement is true?
• What concern arises when someone comes in with singed nose hairs?